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ACDIS Certified Clinical Documentation Specialist-Outpatient Sample Questions (Q66-Q71):
NEW QUESTION # 66
A patient is seen in the obstetrical clinic, 6 weeks postpartum. She presents with resting heart rate of 58 BPM, initial blood pressure of 154/90, and respiratory rate of 20. She also complains of slight headaches, denies visual changes, and has no evidence of peripheral edema. History is significant for smoking and obesity. A blood pressure reading of 160/88 is taken at the end of the visit. The provider documents hypertension. Which of the following query opportunities is MOST appropriate?
- A. Association of hypertension to smoking
- B. A more specific diagnosis, such as pre-eclampsia or eclampsia
- C. Hypertensive crisis - unspecified
- D. Whether the hypertension was pre-existing or developed during pregnancy
Answer: D
Explanation:
In obstetric and postpartum coding, the most important clarification is the type/timing of hypertension because ICD-10-CM has distinct categories for chronic (pre-existing) hypertension, gestational hypertension, and hypertensive disorders that persist into or present during the postpartum period. At 6 weeks postpartum with elevated readings (including a systolic of 160) and headache, the documentation "hypertension" is not specific enough to determine whether this represents chronic hypertension that predates pregnancy, gestational hypertension that has not resolved, or another pregnancy-related hypertensive disorder requiring different obstetric coding and follow-up. ACDIS outpatient CDI guidance prioritizes queries that resolve coding-impactful ambiguity using clinically supported options without leading the provider. While postpartum preeclampsia could be a clinical consideration, the note does not provide key supporting elements (e.g., proteinuria or other definitive severe-feature criteria), so jumping directly to preeclampsia/eclampsia is less appropriate than clarifying onset and relationship to pregnancy. Linking hypertension to smoking is not a standard required linkage for diagnosis coding, and "hypertensive crisis" is not supported by the documentation provided.
NEW QUESTION # 67
A patient with stage 3 CKD presents to the clinic for evaluation. Upon review of labs, an elevated iPTH and a normal phosphorus level are noted. Which of the following diagnoses may be appropriately queried based upon these lab values?
- A. Primary hyperparathyroidism
- B. CKD stage 3 with hypoparathyroidism
- C. Hyperparathyroidism secondary to hypophosphatemia
- D. Secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin
Answer: D
Explanation:
In stage 3 chronic kidney disease, impaired vitamin D activation and early disturbances in calcium-phosphate regulation commonly drive a compensatory rise in parathyroid hormone (PTH), known as secondary hyperparathyroidism of renal origin. Outpatient CDI chart review looks for clinical indicators that suggest a condition being evaluated or requiring management, and an elevated iPTH in a CKD patient is a classic indicator that supports querying the provider for CKD-related mineral and bone disorder, specifically renal secondary hyperparathyroidism, if it is clinically being assessed/treated (e.g., monitoring trends, prescribing vitamin D analogs, calcimimetics, dietary counseling, nephrology follow-up). Primary hyperparathyroidism is less supported here because it typically requires a different biochemical pattern and clinical context (often hypercalcemia) rather than being driven by CKD physiology. Hypoparathyroidism is the opposite process (low PTH), making option C inconsistent with the lab finding. Option D is not supported because phosphorus is normal, not low, and hypophosphatemia is not documented as a driver. Therefore, querying for renal secondary hyperparathyroidism is most appropriate.
NEW QUESTION # 68
Which of the following descriptors is classified as an uncertain diagnosis?
- A. Broad spectrum antibiotic prescribed for streptococcal pneumonia
- B. Evidence of streptococcal pneumonia
- C. Concern for streptococcal pneumonia
- D. Treating a streptococcal pneumonia with antibiotic
Answer: C
Explanation:
In outpatient CDI and coding guidance, an "uncertain diagnosis" is identified by wording that indicates the provider has not confirmed the condition (e.g., possible, probable, suspected, rule out, question of, concern for). These terms reflect diagnostic consideration rather than an established diagnosis. Option A uses the phrase "concern for," which is a classic uncertainty qualifier and signals the provider is considering streptococcal pneumonia but has not definitively diagnosed it. In contrast, options B and D describe active treatment "for streptococcal pneumonia," which implies the provider is managing the condition as a working diagnosis; however, in outpatient coding, treatment alone does not automatically make a diagnosis confirmed if the documentation still reflects uncertainty-CDI would look for explicit provider confirmation. Option C ("evidence of") generally suggests supportive findings and is commonly interpreted as stronger than "concern for," though CDI would still assess whether the provider has clearly stated a confirmed diagnosis in the assessment/plan. Therefore, the clearest uncertain descriptor is "concern for."
NEW QUESTION # 69
Which statement is MOST accurate about the problem list?
- A. Problem list diagnoses should be removed after one year.
- B. A well-maintained problem list is vital in the continuity of patient care.
- C. More diagnoses on the problem list assist the provider in caring for the patient.
- D. A CDI specialist should update the problem list to provide continuity of care.
Answer: B
Explanation:
A well-maintained problem list supports continuity of care by giving the care team an accurate, up-to-date clinical "snapshot" of active and relevant historical conditions that affect ongoing management, decision-making, and risk assessment. Outpatient CDI education emphasizes that the problem list should be curated-conditions should be current, clinically meaningful, and appropriately resolved or clarified (e.g., active vs history, controlled vs uncontrolled). Option A is incorrect because diagnoses are not removed based on an arbitrary time threshold; they are updated based on clinical status (resolved, inactive, erroneous, or no longer relevant). Option C is inaccurate because simply adding more diagnoses can introduce noise and increase the risk of outdated or incorrect conditions being propagated ("problem list bloat"), which can harm patient safety and lead to inaccurate coding. Option D is inaccurate because CDI professionals typically do not independently update the problem list; rather, they support providers through compliant queries, education, and process improvements so the treating provider validates and maintains the record. Therefore, B best reflects outpatient documentation best practice.
NEW QUESTION # 70
A patient presents with pulmonary rales, pulmonary edema found on chest x-ray, and bilateral ankle edema. Which of the following conditions will the provider MOST likely evaluate further?
- A. Heart failure
- B. Pleural effusion
- C. Pulmonary hypertension
- D. Pneumonia
Answer: A
Explanation:
Pulmonary rales (crackles), radiographic pulmonary edema, and peripheral (ankle) edema together strongly suggest a systemic volume overload state, most classically due to heart failure. In ambulatory CDI chart review, these findings function as clinical indicators that drive the provider's diagnostic reasoning and typically prompt further evaluation of heart failure type and status (e.g., acute vs chronic, systolic vs diastolic, preserved vs reduced EF), along with assessment of severity and potential decompensation. Providers commonly correlate these indicators with additional data such as weight gain trends, BNP, echocardiogram findings, medication adherence (diuretics), and signs of congestion to determine whether the patient is experiencing a heart failure exacerbation requiring treatment adjustments. While pleural effusion may coexist and pneumonia can cause rales, the presence of pulmonary edema on chest x-ray plus bilateral ankle edema points more directly to a cardiac/volume etiology than an isolated infectious process. Pulmonary hypertension may contribute to dyspnea and edema but does not most directly explain pulmonary edema on imaging in the same way. Therefore, heart failure is the most likely condition to be evaluated further.
NEW QUESTION # 71
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